Question 1 Which is least likely to be considered an indication of problem behavior in youth?

A.A behavior is excessively intense.

B.A behavior is qualitatively atypical.

C.A behavior is unusual but of no harm to anyone.

D.A behavior is exhibited in inappropriate settings.

Question 2 Alicia’s mother is worried because although Alicia’s behavior seems much like that of her peers, Alicia misbehaves relative to the setting she is in. Alicia’s mother is concerned that her daughter is not meeting

A. gender norms.

B. situational norms.

C. regression norms.

D. developmental norms.

Question 3 Human development is best viewed as

A. always occurring in stages.

B. changes in individuals due to environmental influences.

C. change in persons over time due to the interactions of many variables.

D. quantitative rather than qualitative growth.

Question 4

________________is another term for cause.

A. Effect

B. Theory

C. Paradigm

D. Etiology

Question 5 Risk factors

A. can be biological, psychological, or social.

B. are best conceptualized as being mostly biological.

C. are best conceptualized as characteristics of the individual.

D. are best viewed as independent factors that do not affect each other.

Question 6 Resilience is best defined as

A. a person’s characteristics that protect him or her from negative outcomes.

B. characteristics of the environment that protect a person from negative outcomes.

C. one or more factors that work with risk factors to produce a disorder.

D. one or more factors that protect a person in the presence of risk factors for a disorder.

Question 7

______________ refers to the processes that facilitate or hinder reactivity.

A. Goodness of fit

B. Self-regulation

C. Inhibition

D. Emotion

Question 8 Norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine are all examples of

A. bodily humors.

B. synaptic clefts.

C. neurotransmitters.

D. growth hormones.

Question 9 A toxic substance that may cause damage to the developing fetus is known as a

A. placenta.

B. barrier.

C. teratogen.

D. diathesis.

Question 10 Operant conditioning emphasizes the __________ of behavior.

A. unconscious aspects

B. consequences

C. interpretation

D. symbolism

Question 11 A depressed child views herself as less capable than her peers, whereas others do not view her this way. This is an example of

A. cognitive deficiency.

B. cognitive distortion.

C. thought disorder.

D. protective cognition.

Question 12 The most common form of child maltreatment is

A. emotional maltreatment.

B. neglect.

C. physical abuse.

D. sexual abuse.

Question 13 Why is it valuable to randomly select persons from the population of interest to participate in a research study?

A. Participants will feel they have been treated fairly, which can positively affect the study.

B. It increases the chance that the participants will represent the population.

C. It ensures that the participants will be of the same age.

D. It ensures reliability of measurement.

Question 14 ______________ assumes that participants have the right to control the degree to which personal information can be disclosed.

A. Informed consent

B. Beneficence

C. Non maleficence

D. Confidentiality

Question 15 If an individual is given a global assessment of functioning score of 30, which of the following is likely true?

A. The individual is exhibiting superior functioning.

B. The individual has some impairment in almost all areas.

C. The individual has generally good functioning with difficulty in only a couple of areas.

D. The individual is uncooperative and functioning cannot be determined.

Question 16 The term comorbidity refers to

A. a child meeting the criteria for more than one disorder.

B. two children in a family having the same disorder.

C. a child and parent having the same disorder.

D. two disorders having some of the same cause.

Question 17 _______________ refers to groups of disorders that are thought to share certain psychological and biological qualities.

A. Dimension

B. Classification

C. Spectrum

D. Syndrome

Question 18 A ________________ describes behaviors that tend to occur together.

A. diagnosis

B. syndrome

C. dimension

D. spectrum

Question 19 Which of the following statements regarding diagnostic labels is part of the concern with the impact of such labeling?

A. Diagnostic labels have a social impact as well as a clinical and scientific purpose.

B. Diagnostic labels do not influence observer expectations regarding the child who is labeled.

C. Diagnostic labels do not help to provide adults with an explanation or understanding of the child’s behavior.

D. Diagnostic labels do not lead to generalizations about the characteristics of all children receiving a particular label.

Question 20 Which of the following is accurate regarding the diagnosis of social phobia in an adolescent?

A. The adolescent will not recognize that the fear is excessive or unreasonable.

B. The distinction between normal and abnormal social anxiety may be particularly difficult.

C. The disorder is likely overdiagnosed in adolescents diagnosed in this age group.

D. Young people with social anxiety are typically on anxious in one or two social situations (e.g., meeting new people or performing in front a group).

Question 21

Heather is a 13-year-old who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. It is likely that Heather

A. exhibits anxiety concerning one particular kind of situation.

B. has excessive concerns with her competence and performance.

C. has symptoms that are likely to be transitory (short term).

D. does not show other signs of significant impairment in her functioning.

Question 22 A(n) __________ is a discrete period of intense fear or terror that has a sudden onset and reaches a peak quickly.

A. anxiety attack

B. compulsion

C. panic attack

D. parathesia

Question 23 A(n) _______ is usually defined as an event outside of everyday experience that would be distressing to almost anyone.

A. panic attack

B. obsession

C. trauma

D. parathesia

Question 24 In order to diagnose OCD:

A. obsessions must be related to dirt and germs.

B. the obsessions and compulsions must be highly time consuming and interfere with life.

C. a child must have both obsessions and compulsions.

D. parents and children must agree that there is a problem.

Question 25 The most prevalent form of affective disorder among children and adolescents is

A. bipolar disorder.

B. cyclothymia.

C. dysthymia.

D. major depressive disorder.

Question 26 Depression with onset in ______ is most similar to adult forms of the disorder.

A. preschool

B. early school age

C. preadolescence

D. later adolescence

Question 27 The ____________ perspective attributes depression to low social competence, cognitive distortions, and low self-esteem.

A. psychoanalytic

B. cognitive behavioral

C. biological

D. family systems

Question 28 Susie’s mother abandoned her when she was 5 years old. Now at age 8, Susie thinks that she has little control over her environment. This is an example of:

A. anaclitic depression

B. learned helplessness

C. hopelessness

D. projection

Question 29 Regarding pharmacotherapy for childhood depression,

A. research supports the superiority of antidepressant medications in prepubertal children and adolescents.

B. antidepressant medications have well-established guidelines for administration with youngsters.

C. antidepressant medications are established as being safe for youngsters.

D. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the medications most likely to be recommended.

Question 30 Ana is 17 years old and experiencing a persistent elevated mood. She feels like her thoughts are racing. Ana reports that she needs less sleep than she did before. She has been buying an extensive new wardrobe and has been involved in sexual relations with several older men. She is doing poorly in school and is in conflict with her family and friends. Ana would most likely be diagnosed, according to DSM-V, as experiencing a

A. major depressive episode.

B. manic episode.

C. dysthymic episode.

D. masked depressive episode.

Question 31 The term delinquency is primarily employed to refer to

A. a juvenile who has committed an act that would be illegal for adults as well.

B. a juvenile who has committed an act that is illegal only for juveniles.

C. a juvenile who has committed an act that would be illegal for adults as well or an act that is illegal only for juveniles.

D. a psychological condition – it refers only to a juvenile who has committed an illegal act because of emotional problems.

Question 32 An 11-year-old youngster has, for about a period of one year, frequently exhibited the following behaviors: loses temper, refuses to follow requests or rules, deliberately annoys others, and easily annoyed. He would likely receive a DSM-IV diagnosis of

A. attention-deficit disorder.

B. oppositional-defiant disorder.

C. overt conduct disorder.

D. early-onset conduct disorder.

Question 33 Bobby, a 13-year-old boy is seen at a clinic. He displays the following behaviors: deliberate destruction of others’ property, lying to obtain favors, staying out at night without permission, and frequent truancy from school. These behaviors have all been present during the past year and are ongoing. His parents report that this pattern began when Bobby was 9 years old. Bobby would likely receive a DSM-V diagnosis of

A. oppositional-defiant disorder.

B. conduct disorder, childhood-onset.

C. conduct disorder, adolescent-onset.

D. oppositional-conduct disorder.

Question 34 Which of the following is an example of relational aggression?

A. Purposefully leaving a child out of some activity

B. Spitting on a another child

C. Threatening to beat up another child

D. Shoving a child into a locker

Question 35 The adolescent-onset pattern of conduct-disordered behavior

A. is a less common developmental path than the childhood-onset pattern.

B. is less likely to result in arrest than someone the same age with a childhood-onset pattern.

C. is characterized by less aggressive behavior than the childhood-onset pattern.

D. has a larger proportion of males than the childhood-onset pathway.

Question 36 Executive functions include

A. planning and organizing.

B. respiration.

C. heart rate.

D. hunger and thirst.

Question 37 Which subtype of ADHD is characterized by lethargic, daydreamy behavior?

A. Predominantly inattentive

B. Predominantly hyperactive

C. Predominantly impulsive

D. Combined type

Question 38 Which class of medications is most commonly used in treating attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?

A. Antidepressants

B. Antipsychotics

C. Tranquilizers

D. Stimulants

Question 39 Jimmy has been diagnosed with expressive language disorder. We would thus expect Jimmy

A. to have problems in understanding what others say to him.

B. to speak in simplified, sometimes incorrect, sentences.

C. to have age-appropriate vocabulary.

D. to respond atypically to the speech of others, almost as if he were deaf.

Question 40 Which of the following is an example of a receptive language skill?

A. Babbling

B. Combining vowel sounds

C. Using pronouns

D. Following commands

Question 41 The most appropriate time for identifying writing disorder probably is

A. when the child begins to try to draw and color.

B. when the child enters school, that is, about five years of age.

C. about 8 years of age.

D. about 14 years of age.

Question 42 Assessment of learning disabilities

A. usually occurs in mental health clinics and hospitals.

B. usually occurs by preschool age.

C. requires a battery of tests to evaluate general intelligence and specific academic skills and achievements.

D. typically has placed the most emphasis on evaluating the child’s motivation and social environment.

Question 43 Danny displays mild intellectual disability. Thus, Danny

A. has an IQ in the 35-40 to 50-55 range.

B. will probably achieve no more than second grade academic skills.

C. will probably attend a residential school.

D. will probably achieve adult vocational and social skills for self support.

Question 44 Project Head Start is an example of a(n)

A. direct instruction program.

B. genetic mapping project.

C. early intervention program.

D. job placement program.

Question 45 Research on the developmental course of autism has revealed that

A. for most children the symptoms of autism are not evident until about age 6.

B. regression occurs in less than 5% of cases.

C. symptoms rarely persist into adulthood and most individuals with autism live independently.

D. higher intellectual ability is associated with better outcomes.

Question 46 Asperger’s disorder is characterized by:

A. significant language delay.

B. deficits in intelligence.

C. problems in social interaction.

D. adaptive behavior deficits in all areas.

Question 47 An example of a positive symptom of schizophrenia is

A. lack of emotion.

B. lack of goal-directed behavior.

C. disorganized speech.

D. language that contains little information.

Question 48 Obstructive sleep apnea is

A. rare in children in adolescents.

B. treated with stimulant medication.

C. easily recognizable by parents and professionals.

D. characterized by loud snoring, pauses and difficulty breathing, restlessness and sweating during sleep.

Question 49 Which of the following interventions for the problems of bedtime refusal, difficulty falling asleep, and nighttime wakenings are supported by research?

A. Punishment

B. Bedtime routines.

C. Scheduled awakenings

D. Pharmacological treatments.

Question 50 Current knowledge regarding the etiology of obesity suggests that

A. psychological factors are primary.

B. biological factors are primary.

C. social factors are primary.

D. the causes are probably multiple and complex.

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